A 42-year-old woman who underwent a renal transplant for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis presents with symptoms of anorexia, fatigue, arthralgia, jaundice, lymphadenopathy, and hepatomegaly. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

A. Hepatitis C

B. Epstein-Barr virus

C. HIV

D. Hepatitis B

E. Cytomegalovirus

This is a high-yield exam question-style question. Try to answer this question in 50 seconds. Comment your answer below. The answer to this question is given below.

To discuss the answer Join the study group: Click here

Reveal answer : Click here

At MedRevisions, we strive hard to provide the most up-to-date content available for PLAB Part 1. We constantly add exam-style questions derived from the most recent exam and also update the content to align with the latest NICE/CKS guidelines to ensure doctors pass PLAB Part 1 with ease in ONE attempt.

Reviews about MedRevisions from Past PLAB 1 candidates: Click here

How to use our platform effectively for the PLAB 1 exam preparation: Click here

Find out more about the previous guideline update: click here

Find out more about November 2022 PLAB 1 recalls: Click here

Free 20 Sample PLAB 1 Questions with revision note and complete study note: Click here

Click here to check out all our recent updates