Q35: Orthopaedics: PLAB/UK(MLA) Exam style question
A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to the urology clinic with complaints of erectile dysfunction. He states that he has no morning erections and experiences pain in his buttocks which worsens with movement. Physical examination reveals muscle atrophy and a normal penis and scrotum. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Leriche syndrome
B. S3-S4 cord lesion
C. Pudendal nerve lesion
D. Psychological impotence
E. Beta blocker induced impotence
This is a high-yield recall. Try to answer this question in 50 seconds. Comment your answer below. The answer to this question is given below.
To discuss the answer Join the study group: Click here or Click here
At MedRevisions, we strive hard to provide the most up-to-date content available for PLAB Part 1. We constantly add exam-style questions derived from the most recent exam and also update the content to align with the latest NICE/CKS guidelines to ensure doctors pass PLAB Part 1 with ease in ONE attempt.
Reviews about MedRevisions from Past PLAB 1 candidates: Click here
How to use our platform effectively for the PLAB 1 exam preparation: Click here
Find out more about the previous guideline update: click here
Find out more about November 2022 PLAB 1 recalls: Click here
Free 20 Sample PLAB 1 Questions with revision note and complete study note: Click here
Click here to check out all our recent updates